Custom Practice Test - 25-Jun (2024)

Physics-Section-A

1.

ABCA is a cyclic process. Its P-V graph would be:

1.		2.
3.		4.

2.

A boat can move with a maximum speed of 10 m/sin still water. If the speed of river water is 5 m/s, then in how much minimum time the boat can cross the river of width 500 m?
(1) $\frac{100}{\sqrt{5}}$s
(2) 50 s
(3) 100 s
(4) 150 s

3.

A bar magnet A of magnetic moment M_A is found to oscillate at a frequency twice that of magnet B having identical size as magnet A, of magnetic moment M_B when placed in a vibrating magneto-meter. We may say that
(1) $M_A=2M_B$
(2) M_A = 8M_B
(3) M_A = 4M_B
(4) M_B = 8M_A

4.

The above p-v diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle is

1.${\mathrm{p}}_0{\mathrm{v}}_0$
2.$(13/2){\mathrm{p}}_0{\mathrm{v}}_0$
3.$(11/2){\mathrm{p}}_0{\mathrm{v}}_0$
4.$4{\mathrm{p}}_0{\mathrm{v}}_0$

5.

The sun delivers${10}^{4}W/m^2$of electromagnetic flux to the earth's surface. The total power that is incident on a roof of dimensions (10$\times$10)$m^2$will be
(1)${10}^4$W
(2)${10}^{5}W$
(3)${10}^{6}W$
(4)${10}^{7}W$

6.

Heat radiations propagate with the speed of
1.$\mathrm{\alpha }-\mathrm{rays}$
2.$\beta -\mathrm{rays}$
3. Light waves
4. Sound waves

7.

One likes to sit in the sunshine in the winter season, because:

8.

In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is 1:2. A Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V) is connected across the primary coil. The voltage developed in the secondary coil would be-
1. 3.0 V
2. 0.75 V
3. 1.5 V
4. Zero

9.

$\mathrm{A}\mathrm{particle}\mathrm{of}\mathrm{mass}\mathrm{m}\mathrm{rests}\mathrm{on}\mathrm{a}\mathrm{horizontal}\mathrm{floor}\mathrm{with}\mathrm{which}\mathrm{it}\mathrm{has}\mathrm{a}\mathrm{coefficient}\mathrm{of}\mathrm{static}\mathrm{friction}\mathrm{\mu }.\mathrm{For}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{block}\mathrm{to}\mathrm{just}\mathrm{move}$
$$
$\left(\mathrm{A}\right)\mathrm{A}\mathrm{minimum}\mathrm{force}{\mathrm{F}}_{\min }=\frac{\mathrm{\mu mg}}{\sqrt{1+{\mathrm{\mu }}^2}}\mathrm{has}\mathrm{to}\mathrm{be}\mathrm{applied}\mathrm{at}\mathrm{an}\mathrm{angle}\mathrm{\theta }={\tan }^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{\mu }}\right)\mathrm{with}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{horizontal}.$
$\left(\mathrm{B}\right)\mathrm{A}\mathrm{minimum}\mathrm{force}{\mathrm{F}}_{\min }=\mathrm{\mu mg}\mathrm{has}\mathrm{to}\mathrm{be}\mathrm{applied}\mathrm{at}\mathrm{an}\mathrm{angle}\mathrm{\theta }={\tan }^{-1}\left(\mathrm{\mu }\right)\mathrm{with}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{horizontal}.$
$$
$\left(C\right)\mathrm{A}\mathrm{minimum}\mathrm{force}{\mathrm{F}}_{\min }=\frac{\mathrm{\mu mg}}{\sqrt{1+{\mathrm{\mu }}^2}}\mathrm{has}\mathrm{to}\mathrm{be}\mathrm{applied}\mathrm{at}\mathrm{an}\mathrm{angle}\mathrm{\theta }={\tan }^{-1}\left(\mathrm{\mu }\right)\mathrm{with}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{horizontal}.$
$\left(D\right)\mathrm{A}\mathrm{minimum}\mathrm{force}{\mathrm{F}}_{\min }=\mathrm{\mu mg}\mathrm{has}\mathrm{to}\mathrm{be}\mathrm{applied}\mathrm{at}\mathrm{an}\mathrm{angle}\mathrm{\theta }={\tan }^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{\mu }}\right)\mathrm{with}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{horizontal}.$

10.

If the vector sum of two vectors$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}$and$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}$is maximum, then the angle$\mathrm{\theta }$between two vectors will be:
1. $0°$
2. $30°$
3. $45°$
4. $60°$

11.

The average power of the pump which lifts 20kg of water per second from a well 10 ni deepand projects it with a velocity 10 m/s is (g = 10m/$s^2$)
1. 9 kW
2. 4.5 kW
3. 2.5 kW
4. 3 Kw

12.

If we decrease the frequency of the applied A.C. with a purely capacitive load, do (1) the amplitude of V${}_{\mathrm{c}}$and (2) amplitude of I${}_{\mathrm{c}}$increase, decrease of remain the same.
1. (1) increase (2) same
2. (1) same (2) increase
3. (1) same (2) decrease
4. (1) decrease (2) same

13.

Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with$\frac{1}{2}$ of its body immersed in water and B floats with $\frac{1}{4}$of its volume above the water level. The ratio of the density of A to that of B is
1. 4 : 3 2. 2 : 3
3. 3 : 4 4. 1 : 2

14.

The variation of acceleration,\(a~\) of a particle executing SHM with displacement \(x~\) is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

15.

A particle starting from the point \((1,2)\) moves in a straight line in the XY-plane. Its coordinates at a later time are \((2,3).\) The path of the particle makes with \(x\)-axis an angle of:

16.

The back emf induced in a coil, when current changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second, is 4 volts. The self-inductance of the coil is:
1.$1H$
2.$4H$
3.${10}^{–3}H$
4.$4$$\times$${10}^{–3}H$

17.

Surface tension of a liquid is found to be influenced by
(1) It increases with the increase of temperature
(2) Nature of the liquid in contact
(3) Presence of soap that increases it
(4) Its variation with the concentration of the liquid

18.

The rate of heat emission from an ideal black body at temperature T is H. What will be the rate of emission of heat by another body of same size at temperature 2T and emissivity 0.25?

19.

The ionization potential for second He electron is
(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 27.2 eV
(3) 54.4 eV
(4) 100 eV

20.

The escape velocity of a rocket launched from the surface of the earth
1. Does not depend on the mass of the rocket
2. Does not depend on the mass of the earth
3. Depends on the mass of the planet towards which it is moving
4. None of the above

21.

If the energy of a hydrogen atom in nth orbit is ${\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{n}}$, then energy in the nth orbit of a singly ionized helium atom will be
(1) 4${\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{n}}$
(2) ${\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{n}}$/4
(3) 2${\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{n}}$
(4) ${\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{n}}$/2

22.

A ball is suspended by a thread of length l. What minimum horizontal velocity has to be imparted to the ball for it to reach the height of the suspension:
(1) gl
(2) 2 gl
(3) $\sqrt{gl}$
(4) $\sqrt{2gl}$

23.

A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach the ground in 5 second. If the stone is stopped after 3 second of its fall and then allowed to fall again, then the time taken by the stone to reach the ground for the remaining distance is
(1) 2 sec
(2) 3 sec
(3) 4 sec
(4) None of these

24.

The rate of diffusion is :
1. Faster in solids than in liquids and gases
2. Faster in liquids than in solids and gases
3. Equal to solids, liquids, and gases
4. Faster in gases than in liquids and solids

25.

The product of Young's modulus of the material of the wire with its cross-sectional areas is equal to its length. Find the parameters representing x and y axes of the curve shown in figure

1. Load and increase in length
2. Stress and strain
3. Young's modulus and stress
4. Young's modulus and strain

26.

A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated with angular velocity$\omega$about a point O in a uniform magnetic field$\overrightarrow{B}$directed into the plane of the paper. If AO = l and OC = 3l, then the potential difference between A and C, V_A- V_C is

1.$2{\mathrm{B\omega l}}^2$
2.${\mathrm{B\omega l}}^2$
3.$3{\mathrm{B\omega l}}^2$
4.$4{\mathrm{B\omega l}}^2$

27.

The escape velocity for a rocket from the earth is \(11.2\) km/s. Its value on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is double that on the earth and the diameter of the planet is twice that of the earth (in km/s) will be:

28.

The radius of the circle, the period of revolution, initial position and direction of revolution are indicated in the figure.

The \(y\)-projection of the radius vector of rotating particle \(P\) will be:
1. \(y(t)=3 \cos \left(\dfrac{\pi \mathrm{t}}{2}\right)\), where \(y\) in m
2. \(y(t)=-3 \cos 2 \pi t\),where \(y\) in m
3. \(y(t)=4 \sin \left(\dfrac{\pi t}{2}\right)\),where \(y\) in m
4. \(y(t)=3 \cos \left(\dfrac{3 \pi \mathrm{t}}{2}\right) \),where \(y\) in m

29.

A metal ring of mass m and radius R is placed on smooth horizontal table and is set rotating about its own axis in such a way that each part of the ring moves with a speed v. Tension in the ring is:
1.$\frac{m{v}^2}{R}$
2.$\frac{m{v}^2}{2R}$
3.$\frac{m{v}^2}{2\mathrm{\pi }R}$
4. None of these

30.

The work functions of metals A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2. If light of frequencies f and 2f are incident on the surfaces of A and B respectively, the ratio of the maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted is (f is greater than threshold frequency of A, 2f is greater than threshold frequency of B)
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4

31.

The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle accelerated with 150 volt potential is${10}^{-10}$ m. If it is accelerated by 600 volts p.d., its wavelength will be
(1) 0.25 Å
(2) 0.5 Å
(3) 1.5 Å
(4) 2 Å

32.

33.

$Kilowatt-hour$ is a unit of
(1) Electrical charge
(2) Energy
(3) Power
(4) Force

34.

If E is the energy stored per unit volume in a wirehaving Young's modulusof the material Y, then stress applied is:
1.$\sqrt{2\mathrm{EY}}$
2.$2\sqrt{\mathrm{EY}}$
3.$\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\mathrm{EY}}$
4.$\frac{3}{2}\sqrt{\mathrm{EY}}$

35.

The ratio of the average translatory kinetic energy of He gas molecules to$O_2$gas molecules is
1.$\frac{25}{21}$
2.$\frac{21}{25}$
3.$\frac{3}{2}$
4. 1

Physics-Section-B

36.

The temperature of 5 moles of a gas which was held at constant volume was changed from$100°\mathrm{C}$ to $120°\mathrm{C}$. The change in internal energy was found to be 80 Joules. The total heat capacity of the gas at constant volume will be equal to
1. 8 J/K
2. 0.8 J/K
3. 4.0 J/K
4. 0.4 J/K

37.

The P-V diagram for a thermodynamic system is shown in the figure. The work done by the system during the cyclic process ABCA is

1. Zero
2. 90 J
3. 30 J
4. 60 J

38.

The amount of radiation emitted by a perfectly black body is proportional to
(1) Temperature on ideal gas scale
(2) Fourth root of temperature on ideal gas scale
(3) Fourth power of temperature on ideal gas scale
(4) Source of temperature on ideal gas scale

39.

In a series RLC alternating current circuit, the r.m.s. value of current is $l$, the average power loss in the circuit is
$1.l^{2}R$
$2.l^2\omega L$
$3.l^2\omega C$
$4.l^2\left(\omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C}\right)$

40.

The S.I. unit of displacement current is:
1. Henry
2. Coulomb
3. Ampere
4. Farad

41.

The north pole of a magnet is brought near a metallic ring.
Then the direction of the induced current in the ring will be:
(1) Towards north (2) Towards south
(3) Anticlockwise (4) Clockwise

42.

A block of mass 0.02 kg is connected withspring and is free to oscillate on a horizontal smooth surface as shown. The angular frequency of oscillation is 2 rad ${\mathrm{s}}^{-1}$. The block is pulled by 4 cm (from equilibrium position) and then pushed towards the spring with a velocity of 8 cm/s. The amplitude of oscillation is (Neglect any damping)

1.$3\sqrt{2}\mathrm{cm}$
2.$4\sqrt{2}\mathrm{cm}$
3.$2\sqrt{2}\mathrm{cm}$
4. 1 cm

43.

A block of mass $m$ is placed on the floor of liftwhich is moving with velocity $v$ = $4t^2$, where $t$ istime in second and velocity m/s. Find the time atwhich normal force on the block is three times of itsweight.

1. (3g/8)s
2. g s
3. g/4s
4. 3g s

44.

Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state of the principal quantum number 4. Then, the number of spectral lines observed will be
1. 3
2. 6
3. 5
4. 2

45.

The relationbetween velocity (v) and time (t) is $v\propto \sqrt{\mathrm{t}}$, then which one of the following quantity is constant?
1. Force
2. Power
3. Momentum
4. Kinetic Energy

46.

Select the incorrect statement regarding magnetic material.

47.

Oil spreads over the surface of water whereas water does not spread over the surface of the oil, due to
(1) Surface tension of water is very high
(2) Surface tension of water is very low
(3) Viscosity of oil is high
(4) The viscosity of water is high

48.

Two wires of copper having length in the ratio of \(4:1\) and radii ratio of \(1:4\) are stretched by the same force. The ratio of longitudinal strain in the two will be:

49.

The kinetic energy of an electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 0.3 nanometer is
(1) 0.168 eV
(2) 16.8 eV
(3) 1.68 eV
(4) 2.5 eV

50.

The difference in acceleration due to gravity at heights
h₁ and h₂ from earth's surface, h₂ - h₁ = h and h₂, h₁<<
R, the radius of earth is, the mean density of earth is
$\mathrm{\rho }$,
1.$\frac{8}{3}\mathrm{\pi Mh}$
2.$\frac{8}{3}\mathrm{\pi \rho h}$
3.$\frac{8}{3}\mathrm{G\pi \rho h}$
4.$\frac{2\mathrm{GMh}}{{\mathrm{R}}^3}$

Chemistry-Section-A

51.

Xylene, on oxidation with acidic${\mathrm{KMnO}}_4$, gives:

52.

The oxidation number of oxygen in${\mathrm{KO}}_3$$\mathrm{and}$${\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_2$is respectively -
1.3, and 2
2.1, and 0
3.0, and 1
4.-0.33, and -1

53.

The number of electrons in one molecule of CO₂ are -
1. 22
2. 44
3. 66
4. 88

54.

The above reaction is an example of:-
1. isomerization
2. polymerization
3. cracking
4. de-hydrogenation

55.

The oxidation number of Fe in K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is-
1. +2
2. +3
3. +4
4. +1

56.

The equivalent weight of a metal is 4.5 and the molecular weight of its chloride is 80. The atomic weight of the metal is:-
1. 18
2. 9
3. 4.5
4. 36

57.

The temperature dependent term among the following is -

58.

Which of the following has greater number of electrons than neutrons?
1. Al³⁺
2.O^2-
3.F^-
4. C

59.

For the reaction $R-X+OH\to ROH+$$X^{-}$ The rate is given of
Rate=$5.0\times {10}^{-5}\left[R-X\right]\left[O{H}^{-}\right]+0.20\times {10}^{-5}\left[R-X\right]$ what percentage of R-X Reaction by$S{N}^2$ mechanism when$\left[O{H}^{-}\right]=1.0\times {10}^{-2}M$
1. 96.1%
2. 3.9%
3. 80%
4. 20%

60.

Incorrect statement regarding${\mathrm{BF}}_2{\mathrm{NH}}_2$molecule is :
(1) FBF bond angle$<120\%$
(2) HNH bond angle$>109°28\text{'}$
(3) Exhibits intermolecular H-bond
(4) Hybridization of N-atom is${\mathrm{sp}}^3$

61.

What is the percentage of the reactant molecules crossing over the energy barrier at 325 K?
Given that$∆{\mathrm{H}}_{325}=0.12$$\mathrm{kcal},$${\mathrm{E}}_{\mathrm{a}\left(\mathrm{b}\right)}=+0.02$$\mathrm{kcal}$

62.

2.0 g sample containing${\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3$and${\mathrm{NaHCO}}_3$loses 0.248 g when heated to 300$°$C, the temperature at which${\mathrm{NaHCO}}_3$decomposes to${\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3$,${\mathrm{CO}}_2$and${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$. What is the % of${\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3$in mixture?
1.66.5
2.50.6
3.60.5
4.6.65

63.

Which of the following is the odd one with regard to mass?
1. 1 g atom of sulphur
2. 0.5 moles of CO${}_2$
3. 1 mole of O${}_2$
4. 3 × 10 ²³ molecules of SO${}_2$

64.

The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic mass 16 is :
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1

65.

For a certain reaction, 10% of the reactant dissociates in 1 hour, 20% of the reactant dissociates in 2 hours, 30% of the reactant dissociates in 3 hours. Then the units of the rate constant is:-
(1) hour^-1
(2) mol L^-1hr^-1
(3) mol L^-1 sec^-1
(4) mol Lsec^-1

66.

Calculate the number of ions present in 2L of a solution of 1.6 M K₄[Fe(CN)₆]:

67.

In the given selective hydrogenation which combination is incorrect ?
1. (w.c. = wilkinsons catalyst)
2. (w.c. = wilkinsons catalyst)
3.
4.$\underset{∆}{\overset{{\mathrm{H}}_2}{\to }}C{H}_2-CH=CH-C{H}_3$

68.

Which of the following orbital can not form$\mathrm{\pi }$as well as$\delta$-bond?
(1)$d_{xy}$ (2)$d_{z^2}$
(3)$d_{x^2-y^2}$ (4)$d_{yz}$

69.

The change in oxidation number of chlorine when Cl₂gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is:
1. Zero to +1 and Zero to –5
2. Zero to –1 and Zero to +5
3. Zero to –1 and Zero to +3
4. Zero to +1 and Zero to –3

70.

50 g of antifreeze (ethylene glycol) is added to 200g water. What amount of ice will separate out at -9.3°C. (K_f = 1.86 K Kg mol^-1) :-
(1) 42 mg
(2) 42 g
(3) 38.71 g
(4) 38.71 mg

71.

The degree of unsaturation in compound(A) is -
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10

72.

The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF₃(0.2 D). This is because:
(1) in NH₃ as well as in NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
(2) in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃these are in opposite directions
(3) in NH₃ as well as NF₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
(4) in NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF₃ these are in the same directions

73.

During osmosis, the flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is :
1. From solution having higher concentration only
2. From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates
3. From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates
4. From solution having lower concentration only

74.

How does the energy gap between successive energy levels in an atom vary from low to high n values?
(1) All energy gaps are the same
(2) The energy gap decreases as n increases
(3) The energy gap increases as n increases
(4) The energy gap changes unpredictably as n increases

75.

Which of the two ions from the list given below have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridisation of orbitals,${\mathrm{NO}}_2^{-},{\mathrm{NO}}_3^{-},{\mathrm{NH}}_2^{-},{\mathrm{NH}}_4^{-},\mathrm{and}{\mathrm{SCN}}^{-}$?
1.${\mathrm{NH}}_4^{-}\mathrm{and}{\mathrm{NO}}_3^{-}$
2.${\mathrm{SCN}}_{}^{-}\mathrm{and}{\mathrm{NH}}_2^{-}$
3.${\mathrm{NO}}_2^{-}\mathrm{and}{\mathrm{NH}}_2^{-}$
4.${\mathrm{NO}}_2^{-}\mathrm{and}{\mathrm{NO}}_3^{-}$

76.

The total vapor of a solution of liquid A and liquid B is 600 torr. The mole fraction of component A in the liquid phase is 0.7 and in the vapor phase is 0.35. The vapor pressure of pure A and B are respectively
(1) 300 torr, 130 torr
(2) 1300 torr, 130 torr
(3) 300 torr, 1300 torr
(4) 300 torr, 300 torr

77.

When NaCl is dissolved in water, the sodium ion becomes:
1. oxidised
2. reduced
3. hydrolysed
4. hydrated

78.

4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 litres of volume at NTP. The gas may be:

79.

The major product in the above-mentioned reaction is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

80.

The dissociation of H₂O₂ is a first order reaction. The half life for '16 V H₂O₂ is 30 min, calculate the time at which the solution is 1V H₂O₂?
(1) 120 min.
(2) 90 min.
(3) 60 min.
(4) 150 min.

81.

A 6.85 g sample of the hydrates$\mathrm{Sr}{\left(\mathrm{OH}\right)}_2.{\mathrm{xH}}_2\mathrm{O}$is dried in an oven to give 3.13 g of anhydrous$\mathrm{Sr}{\left(\mathrm{OH}\right)}_2$. The value of x is -
(Atomic weights : Sr=87.60, O=16.0, H=1.0)
1. 8
2. 12
3. 10
4. 6

82.

Given the following reaction:
N₂O₅ as N₂O₅ ⇌ 2NO₂ + (1/2)O₂
The values of rate constants for the above reaction are3.45 × 10^-5and 6.9 × 10^-3at 27 ^oC and 67 ^oCrespectively. The activation energy for the above reaction is :
1.$102$$\times {10}^2$$J$$$$$
2.$488.5$$kJ$
3.$112$$J$$$
4.$112.5$$kJ$

83.

A solution containing 3.3 g of a substance in 125 g of benzene (b.p. 80°C) boils at 80.66°C. If K_b for one litre of benzene is 3.28°C, the molecular weight of the substance shall be
1. 127.20
2. 131.20
3. 137.12
4. 142.72

84.

The correct Schrodinger's wave equation for a electron with total energy E and potential energy V is given by
1.$\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{x}}^2}+\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{y}}^2}+\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{z}}^2}+\frac{8{\mathrm{\pi }}^2}{{\mathrm{mh}}^2}\left(\mathrm{E}-\mathrm{V}\right)\mathrm{\psi }=0$
2.$\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{x}}^2}+\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{y}}^2}+\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{z}}^2}+\frac{8\mathrm{\pi m}}{{\mathrm{h}}^2}\left(\mathrm{E}-\mathrm{V}\right)\mathrm{\psi }=0$
3.$\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{x}}^2}+\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{y}}^2}+\frac{{\partial }^2\mathrm{\psi }}{\partial {\mathrm{z}}^2}+\frac{8{\mathrm{\pi }}^2\mathrm{m}}{{\mathrm{h}}^2}\left(\mathrm{E}-\mathrm{V}\right)\mathrm{\psi }=0$
4. None of the above.

85.

Out of the first 100 elements, number of elements having electrons in 3d-orbitals are :
1. 80
2. 10
3. 100
4. 60

Chemistry-Section-B

86.

A sample of air is saturated with benzene (vapor pressure = 100 mm Hg at 298 K) at 298K, 750mm Hgpressure. If it is isothermally compressed to one third of its initial volume, the final pressure of the system is
(1) 2250 torr
(2) 2150 torr
(3) 2050 torr
(4) 1950 torr

87.

The geometry and the dipole moment of${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{S}$is:

88.

Which solution has highest freezing point?
1. 1% glucose solution
2. 1% urea solution
3. 1% sucrose solution
4. All have same freezing

89.

For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as;
(i) A+B$\to$X(Slow)
(ii) X$\to$AB (Fast)
The progress of the reaction can be best described by:

1.		2.
3.		4.	All of the above.

90.

Which of the following Hydrocarbon has the highest octane number?
1. Methane
2. Ethane
3. Iso-octane
4. Triptane

91.

Select the most ionic and most covalent compounds respectively from the following.
$Cr{O}_5,M{n}_2{O}_7,PbO,P_4{O}_{10},Sn{O}_2$
(A)$Cr{O}_5,M{n}_2{O}_7$ (B) $PbO,M{n}_2{O}_7$
(C)$Cr{O}_5,P_4{O}_{10}$ (D)$Sn{O}_2,Cr{O}_5$

92.

What volume of HCl solution of density 1.2 g/cm³ and containing 36.5% by weight HCl, must be allowed to react with zinc(Zn) in order to liberate 4.0 g of hydrogen?
1. 333.33 mL
2. 500 mL
3. 614.66 mL
4. None of these

93.

Sn⁺⁺ loses two electrons in a reaction. The final oxidation number of tinwill be-
1. + 2
2. Zero
3. + 4
4. – 2

94.

An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its
kinetic energy changes from x to x/4. The change in
potential energy will be
1.$+\frac{3}{2}\mathrm{x}$
2.$-\frac{3}{8}\mathrm{x}$
3.$+\frac{3}{4}\mathrm{x}$
4.$-\frac{3}{4}\mathrm{x}$

95.

Fluorine is a strong oxidising agent because:
1. it has several isotopes
2. it is very small and has 7 electrons in valency shell
3. its valency is one
4. it is the first member of the halogen series

96.

lf equal moles of water and urea are taken in a vessel,The mass percentage of urea in the solution will be -
1. 22.086
2. 11.536
3. 46.146
4. 76.92

97.

The magnetic moment order is correctly given in
1. Fe²⁺ < Fe³⁺ < Mn⁴⁺ < Cr³⁺
2.Cr³⁺ = Mn⁴⁺ < Fe²⁺ < Fe³⁺
3.Cr³⁺ = Mn⁴⁺ < Fe³⁺ < Fe²⁺
4.Fe²⁺< Cr³⁺ < Fe³⁺ < Mn⁴⁺

98.

0.24g of a volatile gas, upon vaporisation, gives 45 mL vapour at NTP. What will be the vapour density of the substance?
(Density of H₂ = 0.089)
1. 95.93
2. 59.93
3. 95.39
4. 5.993

99.

The D in the above-mentioned reaction is -

1.		2.
3.		4.

100.

Consider the plots, given below, for the types of reaction
nA$\to$B+C

These plots respectively correspond to the reaction orders:
1. 0, 1, 2
2. 1, 2, 0
3. 1, 0, 2
4. None of these

Biology-I-Section-A

101.

The oxidative decarboxylation of Pyruvate occurs in

(1) Mitochondrial membranes
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Peri mitochondrial space
(4) Mitochondrial Matrix

102.

Identify a, b, c and d in the given figure.

The pie-chart for the number of species of major taxa of invertebrates represent respectively

1. a – Insects; b – Crustaceans; c. – Molluscs; d – Other animal groups
2. a – Other animal groups; b – Crustaceans; c – Molluscs; d –Insects
3. a –Molluscs; b – Insects; c – Other animal groups; d – Crustaceans
4. a – Insects; b – Molluscs; c – Crustaceans; d – Other animal groups

103.

Order and higher taxon are identified on the basis of-
a. Similarities in characters
b. Dissimilarities in characters
c. Aggregates of characters
d. Both a and c

104.

In Vexillary Aestivation, which of the following is not true?
1. Largest standard petal
2. Two lateral wings
3. Two smallest anterior petals
4. 2+2+2

105.

Which of the following act as a respiratory substrate under certain conditions in some plants?

(1) Glucose
(2) Starch
(3) Protein
(4) Carbohydrate

106. Ecologists have discovered that the value of Z lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2 regardless of the taxonomic group or the region. But the species area relationship among very large areas like entire continents, the slope of line is much steeper. It shows
1. Species richness increases with explored area
2. The value of Z decreases from 0.2 to 0.1
3. The slope is closer to the horizontal axis
4. The angle with the vertical axis is less as compared to horizontal axis

107.

In the following figure identify the parts labeled as A and B and select the option stating true features of them.

A B
1. Forms gametes Smaller in size
2. Stores food reserve Irregular shaped nucleus
3. Irregular shaped nucleus Spindle-shaped cell
4. Bigger in size Forms female gametes

108.

Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?
(1) Polio virus
(2) Tobacco mosaic virus
(3) Measles virus
(4) Retrovirus

109.

The diameter of Pollen grain in the flowering plant is
1. 25–50 micrometers
2. 50–75 micrometers
3. 75–100 micrometers
4. 100–150 micrometers

110.

Match the following
Column-l Column-ll
a. Gluconic acid (i) Penicillium
b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Monascus
c. Statins (iii) Rhizopus
d. Amylases (iv) Trichoderma
1 a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
2 a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
3 a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
4 a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

111.

Which of the following is not produced plants as a product of defense mechanism?
1. Nicotine, quinine
2. Caffeine
3. Strychnine
4. Tumrine

112.

The step of decarboxylation during C4 cycle occurs in:
a. Only Mesophyll cells
b. Bundle Sheath cells
c. both a and b
d. Passage cells

113.

In a population growth rate curve the lag phase represents the period when a population is adjusting to a new environment.
II. In a population growth rate curve the steepest part of growth phase represents the period when a population is growing exponentially.
III. In the stationary phase of a population growth rate curve the population is in dynamic equilibrium
IV. Human have changed the carrying capacity of the earth.
(1) All are correct
(2) I, II, III
(3) II, III
(4) I, IV

114.

Oogamy is associated with formation of
1. Non-flagellated male gamete
2. Motile zygote always inside the female sex organ
3. Egg as female gamete
4. Zygote outside the female body

115.

A plant with a fibrous root system and leaves with parallel venation would lack
I. A vascular cambium.
II. Secondary xylem and phloem.
III. A cork cambium.
1. I, II, and III
2. I and II
3. II and III
4. I and III

116.

In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
(1) Xenogamy
(2) Chasmogamy
(3) Cleistogamy
(4) Geitonogamy

117. The variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges represents

118.

Cytokinesis in animal cell takes place by _______; in _______ direction while in plant cell by _______; in _______ direction:
(1) Furrowing, centrifugal, cell plate, centripetal
(2) Furrowing, centripetal, cell plate, Centrifugal
(3) Cell plate, centrifugal, furrowing, centripetal
(4) Cell plate, centripetal, furrowing, centrifugal

119.

Which of the following plant hormones would most likely
be found in high concentrations in a mature, slightly
over-ripe fruit
1. Cytokinin and ethylene.
2. ABA and ethylene.
3. GA and ABA.
4. Auxin and cytokinin

120.
Given below are two statements:

121.

Between which of the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism?

122.

Baculoviruses does not show
1 Host specificity
2 Narrow spectrum applications
3 Effects on non-target pathogens
4 Utility in IPM programme

123.

Parenchymal cells have ________ walls and are made up of _____________.

(1) Thick, cellulose
(2) Thin, cellulose
(3) Thick, hemicellulose
(4) Thin, hemicellulose

124.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

125. Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?

126. Given below are two statements:

127.

Which of the following is not an effect of ethylene in plants?

128.

The incorrect match for chlorophyll type is
1. Chlorophyll ‘a’ .... Green algae
2. Chlorophyll ‘d’ ... Diatoms
3. Chlorophyll ‘c’ ... Dinoflagellates and Brown algae
4. Chlorophyll ‘d’ ...Red algae

129.

Mitotic divisions which result in continuous growth of plants throughout their life
1. In the meristematic tissue
2. Apical and lateral cambium
3. Both A and B
4. Cells of maturation zone of root

130.

Match the column- l with column-ll
Column-l Column-ll
(Bioactive molecules) (Source)
a. Cyclosporin A i. Monascus
b. Statins ii. Clostridium
c. Clot buster iii. Trichoderma
d. Butyric acid iv. Streptococcus
1. a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
2. a (iii), b (iv), c (i), d (ii)
3. a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii)
4. a (i), b (iv), c (ii), d (iii)

131.

The family of Mangifera indica is

132.

Which of the following is not associated with red tides

(1) Harmful for marine organisms
(2) Gonyaulax
(3) Aquatic habitat
(4) Color is due to pigment in the cell of Dinoflagellates

133.

The tendrils of pea are

(1) Example of stem modification which are useful in climbing
(2) Example of leaf modification for climbing
(3) Example of leaf modification for defence
(4) Example of stem modification for defence

134.

In Krebs' cycle, GTP is formed in
1. substrate level phosphorylation
2. oxidative phosphorylation
3. non-cyclic photophosphorylation
4. cyclic photophosphorylation

135.

Which of the following is true about chromatophores
(1)its’s a plasma membrane infolding
(2)site of photosynthesis
(3)contain pigments
(4)All of the above

Biology-I-Section-B

136.

Competition can be defined best as
1. A process in which the fitness of one species i.e. r is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
2. Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting.
3. A process which not always lead to loss of both the organisms
4. Both 1and 2

137.

Consider the following two statements:

1. Both statements are correct and II explains I
2. Both statements are incorrect
3. I is correct and II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect and II is correct

138.

Starch sheath layer in plant stem is also known as

(1) Epidermis
(2) Metadermis
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pith layer

139.

Which type of spores are produce by pteridophytes and gymnosperms?
1.Spore myoblast
2.Somatic spores
3.Heterospores
4.hom*ospores

140.

Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing
1. same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
2. half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
3. half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
4. same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatid

141.

Megasporangium is equivalent to
(1) embryo sac
(2) fruit
(3) nucellus
(4) ovule

142.

Which part of the world has a high density of organism?
(1) Deciduous forests
(2) Grasslands
(3) Tropical rain forests
(4) Savannahs

143.

Order…….. and primate comes under class…….
a. Carnivora, mammalia
b. Diptera, Reptilia
c. Poals, Reptilia
d. Diptera, mammalia

144. Between which of the following taxa, there is greater difficulty of determining relationship?
1. Mangifera and Triticum
2. Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae
3. Sapindales and Poales
4. Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae

145.

Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has:
1. Inert crystalline
2. Abnormally folded protein
3. Free RNA without protein coat
4. Free DNA without protein coat

146.

Which of the given feature is not related to mustard?
1. Superior ovary.
2. Variable length of filaments of stamens.
3. Parietal placentation.
4. Opposite phyllotaxy.

147. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
1. Genetic material in PPLO is naked.
2. Plasmids are circular single-stranded DNA outside the genomic DNA.
3. Organelles found in prokaryotes are non-membrane-bound.
4. The presence of mesosome is a characteristic of prokaryotes.

148.

Complex I does not have

(1) FMN
(2) Fe-S centres
(3) NADH dehydrogenase
(4) Cytochrome C1

149.

Which of the following is free living nitrogen fixer?

(1) Baculoviruses
(2) Azotobacter
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Trichoderma

150.

Ethephon

(1) Thinning Cotton, Cherry and Walnut
(2) Promotes female flowers in cucumber
(3) Hastens the fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples
(4) All of these

Biology-II-Section-A

151.

The analogue of hirudin, from the saliva of leech, found in human blood is
1. Antithrombin
2. Gamma globulin
3. Histamine
4. heparin

152.

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a genetic trait carried in the bacterial:
1. Intron
2. Chromosome
3. Plasmid
4. Centromere

153.

The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
1. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
2. Distal convoluted tubule
3. Proximal convoluted tubule
4. Descending limb of the loop of Henle

154. Select the event among the following that is responsible for depolarisation of a nerve fibre.
1. Activation of Na⁺- K⁺ pump
2. Opening of voltage-gated Na⁺ and K⁺ channels simultaneously
3. Opening of voltage-gated Na⁺ channels that leads to rapid influx of Na⁺ into the neuron
4. Opening of voltage-gated K⁺ channels that leads to rapid movement of K⁺ from axoplasm to ECF

155.

Pressure gradient between the lungs and atmosphere is maintained by
(1)diaphragm
(2)external intercostal muscles
(3)internal intercostal muscles
(4)All of these

156.

What is true of natural methods of contraception?
1. They increase phagocytosis of sperms
2. They employ barriers to prevent fertilization
3. They are natural ways of avoiding chances of fertilization
4. They are surgical methods and are terminal methods

157.

One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?

158.

Capacitation refers to changes in the
1. Sperm after fertilization
2. Sperm before fertilization
3. Ovum before fertilization
4. Ovum after fertilization

159.

What is an antisense technology?
(1) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens.
(2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue cultures.
(3) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific gene
(4) RNA polymerase producing DNA

160.

In which of the following disorders alveolar walls are damaged, surface area for gaseous exchange is reduced and the air sacs remain filled with air even after expiration?
1. Pneumonia
2. Coryza
3. Emphysema
4. SARS

161.

Secretions of …….…… seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for maturation and motility of sperm.

(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Both
(4) None of these

162.

Leucocytes are ______ and ______.
(1) colourless and enucleated
(2) coloured and nucleated
(3) colourless and nucleated
(4) coloured and enucleated

163.

Which of the following is incorrect match with respect to organism and its general characters?

164.

What is true about "Saheli"?
I. Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
II. Contains a steroidal preparation
III. "Once-a-week" pill
IV. Many side-effects
V. High contraceptive value
VI. Very few side-effects
(1) I, II, III, V, VI
(2) I, III, V, VI
(3) I, II, III, IV, V
(4) I, III, IV, V

165.

Which of the following match is correct?
1. co*ckroach – Crustacea
2. Pila – Pelecypoda
3. Spider – Arachnida
4.Unio – Gastropoda

166.

Pelvic girdle (hip girdle) is composed _________ coxal (hip) bones:
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

167.

Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is
A. Tidal volume B. TV + ERV
C. Expiratory capacity D. ERV + RV
1. A only
2. B & C only
3. A, B & C only
4. A,B,C & D

168. Identify the incorrectly matched pair

169.

The atrium and the ventricle on the same side in the human heart are separated by:
1. a thin muscular wall
2. a thick muscular wall
3. a thin fibrous tissue
4. a thick fibrous tissue

170.

Which of the following statements is wrong?
1. Movement is one of the significant features of living beings
2. Streaming of protoplasm in the unicellular organisms like Amoeba is a simple form of movement
3. Animals and plants exhibit a wide range of movements
4. Movement of cilia, flagella and tentacles is limited to lower organisms

171.

The depolarization of the axonal membrane is due to:
1. Influx of sodium ions
2. Efflux of sodium ions
3. Influx of potassium ions
4. Efflux of the potassium ions

172.

By the contraction in radial muscle of diaphragm it become flattened in shape, so, volume of thoracic cavity increases in :-
1. Anterior-posterior axis
2. Dorsal-ventral axis
3. Anterior-lateral axis
4. Dorsal-lateral axis

173.

In retina of eye which kind of axons are found?

(1) Multipolar
(2) Bipolar
(3) Unipolar
(4) Apolar

174. Luteinising hormone (LH) in females
1. Helps in the appearance of secondary sexual characters
2. Stimulates ovary to secrete oestradiol
3. Helps in release of the ovum from the ovary
4. Controls the blood pressure

175.

Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms in:
1. Hypotension
2. Coronary artery disease
3. Angina
4. Heart failure

176.

The Central portion of thick filament is not overlapped by thin filament during…….. and is known as

(1) Motion, Z line
(2) Motion, H zone
(3) Resting State, H zone
(4) Resting state, Z line

177.

"Saheli" is a(n)
1. NGO working for female child rights
2. Mid-wife working in villages to help in child immunization
3. A national helpline number for prevention of crimes against women
4. Oral contraceptive for females

178.

Restriction endonuclease cuts
1. Exactly at the center of site
2. Cutting of both the strands occur one after another
3. Between the same two bases on the opposite strands
4. Both 1 and 3

179.

Insulin like growth factor are involved in growth, this study can be done by

(1) By introducing genes from other species that cause formation of this factor.
(2) By introducing genes from other species that alter formation of this factor
(3) By studying genes from same transgenic animal which cause correct formation of this factor
(4) By studying genes from other species which cause correction in growth-pathway.

180.

Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adult?
(1) Tunicates
(2) Lancelets
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Bony fishes

181.

Which one of the following options gives the correct categorization of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C) they give out?

182.

The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:

183. Choose the incorrect match

184.

Which of the following hormones have sharpest peak during a standard menstrual cycle?

(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

185.

False statement with respect to Ascidia is
1. Present exclusively in marine water
2. It is a urochordate and notochord is present only in larval tail
3. It is a vertebrate because it has a notochord
4. It is a protochordate

Biology-II-Section-B

186. Which of the following statements are correct?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

187.

The maximum amount of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as:
1. Carbaminohemoglobin
2. Carboxyhemoglobin
3. Bicarbonate
4. Dissolved state in plasma

188.

Select the incorrect statement:

189. Which is not true for all cloning vectors?
1. These are independent of the control of chromosomal DNA
2. These get integrated into chromosomal DNA after transformation
3. They contain genes for antibiotic resistance or some selectable marker
4. They have specific DNA sequence called origin of replication.

190.

Sycon is
1. Multicellular organisms with tissue level organisms
2. Multicellular animal with radial symmetry and false coelom
3. Primitive multicellular organism having cellular level of organization
4. Asymmetrical sponge present in fresh water

191.

A genetically engineered product used in the treatment of anaemia is:

192.

Which of the following situations would result in the greatest degree of${\mathrm{O}}_2$saturation for haemoglobin, assuming${\mathrm{PO}}_2$remains constant-
1. Increased${\mathrm{H}}^{+}$levels, decreased temperature.
2. Increased${\mathrm{CO}}_2$levels, increased acidity.
3. Decreased${\mathrm{CO}}_2$levels, decreased acidity.
4. Increased${\mathrm{CO}}_2$levels, increased temperature.

193.

Hyaline cartilage helps in the attachment of

(1) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs to the 7th pair of ribs
(2) 7th pair of ribs to the vertebral Column
(3) 11th and 12th pair of ribs to the vertebral Column to the sternum
(4) Both B and C

194.

Choose the correct option wherein, the correct stages of the development of human embryo
takes place.

195.

The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained by

(1) Insulin
(2) Glucagons
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of these

196. High blood pressure can potentially harm the vital organs like
A. Heart
B. Brain
C. Kidneys
D. Lungs
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and C
4. A, B, C and D

197.

ADH has no effects over

(1) Latter parts of tubules
(2) Kidney
(3) Blood vessels
(4) Liver

198.

Which of the following is a limbless amphibian?
1. Hyla
2. Salamandar
3. Ichthyophis
4. Bufo

199.

Accumulation of urea in the blood is known as

(1) Uremia
(2) Urosis
(3) Uricosis
(4) Urasis

200.

Consider the two surgical procedures given below and choose the correct statement:

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get FREE ACCESS for 2 days of ANY NEETprep course